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Exam (elaborations) ,Understanding Pathophysiology test bank Understanding Pathophysiology, ISBN: 4097

Complete and comprehensive test bank for nutrition for health and healthcare us 6th edition by debruyne. The test bank represents the most…

#BalanceSheet #CashFlowStatement #TimeValueOfMoney #InventoryValuation #PropertyPlantEquipment #IntangibleAssets #Liabilities #StockholdersEquity #Investments #RevenueRecognition #FinancialDisclosure Chapter: 1 The Environment and Conceptual Framework of Financial Reporting Chapter: 2 The Accounting Information System Chapter: 3 Income Statement, Related Information, and Revenue Recognition Chapter: 4 Balance Sheet and Statement of Cash Flows Chapter: 5 Accounting and the Time Value of Money Chapter: 6 Cash and Receivables Chapter: 7 Valuation of Inventories: A Cost-Basis Approach Chapter: 8 Inventories: Additional Valuation Issues Chapter: 9 Acquisition and Disposition of Property, Plant, and Equipment Chapter: 10 Depreciation, Impairments, and Depletion Chapter: 11 Intangible Assets Chapter: 12 Current Liabilities and Contingencies Chapter: 13 Long-Term Liabilities Chapter: 14 Stockholders’ Equity Chapter: 15 Dilutive Securities and Earnings per Share Chapter: 16 Investments Chapter: 17 Revenue Recognition Chapter: 18 Accounting for Income Taxes Chapter: 19 Accounting for Pensions and Postretirement Benefits Chapter: 20 Accounting for Leases Chapter: 21 Accounting Changes and Error Analysis Chapter: 22 Statement of Cash Flows Chapter: 23 Full Disclosure in Financial Reporting Test Bank for Intermediate Accounting 18Ed by Donald E. Kieso, Jerry J. Weygandt & Terry D. Warfield - Elaborated and Complete ISBN-13 978-6 1 The Environment and Conceptual Framework of Financial Reporting 1-1 2 The Accounting Information System 2-1 3 Income Statement, Related Information, and Revenue Recognition 3-1 4 Balance Sheet and Statement of Cash Flows 4-1 5 Accounting and the Time Value of Money 5-1 6 Cash and Receivables 6-1 7 Valuation of Inventories: A Cost-Basis Approach 7-1 8 Inventories: Additional Valuation Issues 8-1 9 Acquisition and Disposition of Property, Plant, and Equipment 9-1 10 Depreciation, Impairments, and Depletion 10-1 11 Intangible Assets 11-1 12 Current Liabilities and Contingencies 12-1 13 Long-Term Liabilities 13-1 14 Stockholders’ Equity 14-1 15 Dilutive Securities and Earnings per Share 15-1 16 Investments 16-1 17 Revenue Recognition 17-1 18 Accounting for Income Taxes 18-1 19 Accounting for Pensions and Postretirement Benefits 19-1 20 Accounting for Leases 20-1 21 Accounting Changes and Error Analysis 21-1 22 Statement of Cash Flows 22-1 23 Full Disclosure in Financial Reporting 23-1

Includes questions, answers and rationale of correct answer. Great to study for exams and will increase your knowledge on the material. Ace your exams with this study material! We've helped students increase their grades just by utilizing this test bank.

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Test Bank For Fundamentals Nursing Vol 1 3rd Edition By Wilkinson Treas Complete Test Bank

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Exam (elaborations) NURS 404 Mental Health TEST BANK

.9 kg, then the patient should be considered fully dependent, and assistive devices should be used for transfer If a draining wound tests positive for MRSA, the patient is placed on contact precautions True or False Correct answer- True Patients with abscess or draining wounds who tests positive for MRSA are placed on contact precautions Hands can be cleaned with alcohol-based hand rub after caring for a patient with C. diff True or False Correct answer- False Alcohol does not kill C diff spores and soap and water should be used for hand hygiene as recommended by CDC Disaster triage differs from route emergency department triage True or False Correct answer- True Disaster triage categories range from most urgent (first priority), urgent, nonurgent (the walking wounded), and dead/catastrophic/coma. Newborns are fitted with tamperproof security sensors during their stay at the hospital True or False Correct answer- True Wearing a tamper proof safety device reduces the risk of abduction. The sensor shows the location of the infant and the security system can activate other devices (such as cameras, door locks, public address systems, sirens, and other alarms) in the event of an attempted abduction Restraints can be ordered prn by health care providers True or False Correct answer- False HCP are required to specify duration and circumstances for which restraints are required and for how they should be used. Nurses and HCPs must frequently monitor patients to reassess for the continued need for restraints. Sensor pads may be used on beds of individuals who are a fall risk True or False Correct answer- True Bed alarms and sensor pads can be used to alert caregivers when a patient is attempting to get up from a bed or chair, especially for a patient that is at risk for a fall. This is an effective alternative to the use of restraintts The 3 elements of radiation protection are time, duration, and shielding True or False Correct answer- True The farther away people are from a radiation source, the less their exposure; as a rule, if you double the distance, you reduce the exposure by a factor of four. The amount of radiation exposure typically increases with the time people spend near the source of radiation You should quickly remove contaminated clothing by pulling it over your head True or False Correct answer- False Contaminated clothing should never be removed quickly, but it should be cut off instead of pulled over your head. place contaminated clothing inside a plastic bag, seal the bag, and then place inside another plastic bag Standard precautions also includes respiratory/cough etiquette True or False Correct answer- True Standard precautions are used to reduce the risk of transmission of bloodborne and other pathogens from both recognized and unrecognized sources. Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette is now considered part of standard precautions The nurse is making patient room assignments. In order to minimize the risk of a hospital acquired infection, which of these children would be the most appropriate roommate for a 3-year-old child diagnosed with minimal change disease a. 3 year old with fracture, with a sibling that has Fifth disease b. 2 year old diagnosed with respiratory infection c. 6 year old with sickle cell disease experiencing vaso-occlusive crisis d. 4 year old with bilateral inguinal hernia repair Correct answer- d. 4 year old with bilateral inguinal hernia repair Minimal change disease is a kidney disorder that can lead to nephrotic syndrome. Corticosteroids can cure the disease in most children but cytotoxic therapy and other drugs may be needed, but this treatment can reduce the child's ability to fight infection. The charge nurse must select a roommate who does not have an infection, which is the child child who had surgery. The sickle cell crisis may have triggered an infection. The child's sibling who has a viral disease has the potential to develop an infection. The nurse is setting up a patient's dinner tray. When the nurse turns her back to the patient, the patient grabs the nurse's buttocks and states that he is hungry for much more than dinner. Which of the following response by the nurse is indicated? a. ignore the behavior b. call the HCP c. quickly leave the room and ask UAP to assist the patient d. complete an incident report Correct answer- d. complete an incident report To keep the therapeutic relationship intact, a nurse needs to set limits on appropriate behavior and not ignore bad behavior. Sexual harassment is a form of violence and is never part of the job. The nurse should report the incident to her supervisor and complete an incident report. The nurse has the right to ask not to be assigned to this patient. The paramedics are transporting a poisoning victim to the local hospital. In which of these cases does the nurse anticipate that hyperbaric O2 therapy will be used? a. 6yo found sitting on bathroom floor beside an empty bottle of diazepam b. 21 yo with suspected ethanol intoxication c. 35 yo found unconscious with suspected CO poisoning 2 yo who ate an undetermined amount of crystal drain cleaner Correct answer- c. 35 yo found unconscious with suspected CO poisoning CO poisoning is the leading cause of poisoning in the US. It causes severe hypoxia which is why treatment includes high-dose oxygen. In severe poisoning, hyperbaric O2 therapy may be used. Treatment for: -crystal drain cleaner and diazepam may include gastric lavage and/or activated charcoal -alcohol intoxication may include gastric lavage, IV fluids, and supportive care A neonate is having difficulty maintaining a temperature above 98F and is placed in an infant warming system. Which of the following actions will ensure the safety of the neonate? a. monitor temperature continuously b. avoid touching neonate with cold hands c. warm all medications and liquids before administration d. wrap the neonate snugly in a cotton blanket Correct answer- a. monitor temperature continuously When using the warming device, the neonate's temperature should be continuously monitored using a probe that securely attached to the skin. Monitoring the neonate's temperature is the priority safety concern because the skin burns, permanent brain damage or even death can result due to improper use or monitoring of equipment. No clothing or swaddling is needed in the IWS; usually babies are dressed only in a diaper (although bubble wrap blankets or plastic wrap blankets can be used to minimize heat loss in high risk newborns). For healthy term newborns, nurses should warm their hands and stethoscopes prior to contact with the baby. A nurse is conducting a community-wide seminar on childhood safety issues. Which of these children is at the highest risk for poisoning a. 20 month old who has just learned to climb the stairs b. 10 yo who occassionally stays at home unattended c. 15 yo who likes to repair bicycles d. 9 month old who stays with a sitter 5 days a week Correct answer- a. 20 month old who has just learned to climb the stairs Toddlers, aged 1-3 years, are at highest risk for poisoning because they are increasingly mobile, need to explore and engage in autonomous behavior A nurse is performing well-child assessments at a day care center when a staff member interrupts the exam for assistance with another child. The nurse finds a 3 yo child on the floor with bleeding gums and 2 unlabeled open bottles nearby. What should the nurses first action be? a. call poison control and then 911 b. administer syrup of Ipecac to induce vomiting c. ask the staff member about the contents of the bottles d. give the child milk to coat the stomach Correct answer- c. ask the staff member about the contents of the bottles The nurse needs to asses the situation and determine what the child ingested. Once the substance is identified, the poison control center and the emergency medical services should be called. The nurse administer a new medication to the patient. Which of the following actions best demonstrates an awareness of safe and proficient nursing practice? a. verify order prior to administration. ask for patient name b. verify patient's allergies on chart and name on door, ask date of birth c. ask name and allergies, then check wristband and allergy band d. ask name then check wristband Correct answer- c. ask name and allergies, then check wristband and allergy band A dual check is always done for the patient's name. This would involve verbal and visual checks. Because this is a new medication an allergy check is appropriate. The other option have parts that might be correct actions. However, to be the correct answer all the parts of an option need to be correct. The nurse is caring for a patient who is not oriented to time, place, or person and has repeatedly attempted to pull out IV line and a feeding tube. The nurse receives an order from HCP to apply a vest and soft wrist restraints. Which of the following actions by nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply a. release the restraints and provide care Q4 b. call HCP for new order Q48 c. document which alternative interventions were used or attempted d. tie restraints using quick release knots e. explain the rationale for restraints to patient f. conduct a thorough assessment of the patient Correct answer- c. document which alternative interventions were used or attempted d. tie restraints using quick release knots e. explain the rationale for restraints to patient f. conduct a thorough assessment of the patient Prior to applying restraints, the nurse must first conduct a thorough assessment of the patient and document the behavior and/or events leading up to the use of the restraints. The nurse should also document which alternatives to restraints were tried and the patient's response to those measures. Even though the patient is confused, nurse must still explain the reason for applying the restraints. A physician's order is renewed daily. Many policies state that the patient in restraints must be assessed hourly, care is given and documented at least every 2 hours. A patient diagnosed with gastroenteritis, caused by a salmonella infection. Which of these actions is the primary nursing intervention designed to limit the transmission of salmonella? a. hand hygiene before and after patient contact b. decontaminate with alcohol-based skin disinfectant c. wear 2 pairs of gloves when changing contaminated linens d. isolate the patient in a single room without a roommate Correct answer- a. hand hygiene before and after patient contact Salmonella is a bacteria and of the causes for gastroenteritis. Gastroenteritis is characterized by acute onset of nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and/or diarrhea. The CDC recommends using standard precautions for this illness, which is the why the primary nursing intervention is thorough handwashing before and after contact with patient using soap and water. Skin disinfectants can reduce the number of bacteria on the hands but cannot replace the importance of washing with soap and water. Contact isolation is not needed. Symptomatic patients can be cohorted. Double-gloving can be effective in surgery, but it is probably not needed when changing contaminated linens. The medication benztropine mesylate is ordered, but the nurse incorrectly administers carvedilol. What are the most important actions the nurse should take after making this medication error? Select all that apply a. document administration of carvedilol b. monitor and document the patient's BP c. notify HCP d. notify patient e. notify nurse manager Correct answer- a. document administration of carvedilol b. monitor and document the patient's BP c. notify HCP e. notify nurse manager When the nurse makes a medication error, the patient's safety and well-being are the top priority. The nurse will document giving the beta blocker carvedilol and as well as any effects the medication has on the patient. The HCP must be notified; the nurse will document that the provider was called and that orders were implemented. The nurse manager must be notified. Once the patient is stable, the nurse will complete an incident/variance/quality assurance report within 24 hours of the incident. The initial disclosure of the medication error with the patient should occur as soon as reasonably possible after the event, usually 1-2 days after the event. After an explosion at a factory, one of the employees approaches the nurse and says, "I am a CNA at the local hospital." Which of these tasks would be appropriate for nurse to assign to this worker who is assisting in the care of the injured. a. take temp b. palpitate pulses c. measure BP d. check alertness Correct answer- b. palpitate pulses The heart rate and regularity would indicate if the patient is in shock or has the potential for shock. If pulses cannot be easily palpitated or are irregular, those patients would be seen first and further assessment by the nurse could be done (including measuring BP). Taking the temperature is not a priority at this time Which situation requires hand washing? Select all that apply a. after cleaning a wound b. after contact with inanimate objects in the immediate vicinity of a patient c. prior to eating d. before having direct contact with a patient e. after making a chart entry Correct answer- a. after cleaning a wound b. after contact with inanimate objects in the immediate vicinity of a patient c. prior to eating d. before having direct contact with a patient Handwashing is still the simplest and most effective strategy to prevent the spread of infection. It is necessary to wash one's hands to protect oneself prior to eating, after removing gloves following any patient procedure, and even after having contact with intact ski or objects in the patient's room. However, it is not necessary to wash hands after handling every chart (although using an alcohol-based hand rub would be advisable). The nurse is offering safety instructions to a parent with a 4-month old infant and a 4 yo child. Which statement by the parent indicates a correct understanding of the appropriate precautions to take with the children. a. "I have the 4 yo hold and help feed the 4 month old a bottle with me." b. "I place my infant in the middle of the living room floor on a blanket to play with my 4yo while I make supper in the kitchen." c. My sleeping baby lies so cute in the crib with the little buttocks stuck up in the air while the 4 yo naps on the sofa." d. "I strap the infant car seat on the front seat to face backwards." Correct answer- a. "I have the 4 yo hold and help feed the 4 month old a bottle with me." The infant seat should be placed on the rear seat. Small children and infants should not be left unsupervised. Infants are to be placed on their backs when they are sleeping or lying in a crib. A 4 yo could assist with the care of an infant, such as feeding with proper direct supervision. A patient is admitted to an impatient crisis unit with the diagnosis of acute mania and has been placed in seclusion. The nurse is assigned to observe the patient at all times. It is now time for the patient's dinner. What action should the nurse take next? a. Serve dinner in the seclusion room maintaining close observation. b. Obtain a contract for safe behavior before accompanying the patient to the dining room c. Accompany the patient to the dining room and maintain observation d. Hold the meal until after the seclusion order is discontinued. Correct answer- a. Serve dinner in the seclusion room maintaining close observation. Seclusion is ordered by the physician and requires continuous observation, unless the order is discontinued or amended. It is incorrect to amend the seclusion or mealtime. Meals can be eaten in the seclusion room with the nurse continuing 1:1 observation. Meals should be offered on time and should not be withheld. Contracts for safe behavior are meaningless in the presence of psychotic behavior - mania The hospital sounded the call for disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these patients would the nurse put first on the list for discharge in order to make room for new admissions? a. A middle-aged patient with 7-year history of being ventilator dependent and who was admitted with bacterial pneumonia 5 days ago. b. An older adult with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and who was admitted with Steven Johnson syndrome that morning c. A young adult with DM2 for more than 10 years and was admitted with antibiotic induced diarrhea d. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and was admitted with cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago. Correct answer- a. A middle-aged patient with 7-year history of being ventilator dependent and who was admitted with bacterial pneumonia 5 days ago. The best candidate for discharge is one who has a chronic condition and has an established plan of care. The patient who has been on a ventilator for years is most likely stable and could continue medication therapy at home. The other patients have a risk for instability or are unstable. The school nurse is providing information for teachers at a school where 10 yo child with epilepsy attends. What is the most important action a teacher can take when the child experiences a tonic-clonic seizure in the classroom. a. Clear the immediate are of anything that could harm the child b. provide privacy and reassure the other children c. note the sequence of movements with the time lapse of the event d. Place something soft and flat under the child's head Correct answer- d. Place something soft and flat under the child's head During seizure activity, the priority would be to protect the child from physical injury. The teacher could place something soft and flat, like folded jacket under the child's head to help prevent head trauma. After protecting the head, the prioritized sequence would be to move furniture away from the child, note movements and time, and then provide privacy, if possible, while reassuring the other students. The charge nurse on the evening shift is asked to determine which patient is a candidate for discharge following an internal disaster in the hospital at 2100. which of these patients would the nurse select as a potential candidate for discharge? a. An older adult female who is actively dying and has a DNR b. A middle-aged adult with a history of DM1 and 1 day post DKA c. A young adult admitted at the beginning of the shift, with an asthma exacerbation d. An adolescent admitted on the day shift to rule out acute pancreatitis, who reports a history of alcohol abuse Correct answer- b. A middle-aged adult with a history of DM1 and 1 day post DKA The patient selected to be discharged should be one whose condition is more stable than the others and where there is less of a risk for complications or instability after discharge. Although the patient with asthma has a chronic condition, she was just admitted and is experiencing acute exacerbation of the condition. The adolescent is experiencing an acute condition, probably brought on by alcohol abuse. Neither of these patients are stable enough for discharge. It is a humane choice to allow the patient who is in the process of dying to stay in the hospital. The patient is admitted to same day surgery for carpal tunnel release of the left wrist. Before the anesthetic is administered, what measures are used to prevent surgical errors? Select all that apply a. The pre-op nurse reviews all relevant documents b. The anesthesiologists asks if anyone has any concerns c. Surgical site is marked by surgeon d. The patient is asked to confirm correct surgical site e. The patient is asked to state name and DOB Correct answer- c. Surgical site is marked by surgeon d. The patient is asked to confirm correct surgical site e. The patient is asked to state name and DOB Marking the correct site helps prevent wrong site operations. The patient must also verbally state name and DOB (and any other identifiers required by facility). Pre-op verification of all required document is done independently by at least 2 providers. When the patient is in the OR suite, a time out is called. This is the final safety check between the surgical, nursing, and anesthesia care teams immediately before the procedure. It is not enough for one person to ask if there are any other questions or concerns. The parent of a toddler ask the nurse how long their child will have to sit in a car seat while in an automobile. What is the nurse's best response to the parents? a. "The child can use a regular seat belt when can sit still." b. "Your child must reach a height of 50 inches to sit in a seat belt." c. "The child must be 5 yo to use a regular seat belt." d. "Your child must use a car seat until he weighs at least 40 lbs." Correct answer- d. "Your child must use a car seat until he weighs at least 40 lbs." Dowload to view full test bank with complete solution

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swer is: C) Advance Directives. This document specifies the client's wishes Question 2 You are the of a health care team that consists of one licensed practical/vocational nurse, one nursing assistant , a nursing student and yourself. To whom is it appropriate to assign complete care for A) Yourself B) The nursing student C) The licensed vocational nurse D) The nursing assistant Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Yourself. While the nurse may delegate a bed bath for a stable client, this care should be performed by an RN for a new admission. Only tasks that do not require independent judgment should be delegated. 3Question 3 A mother brings her the clinic, complaining that the child seems to be The nurse expects to find which of the following on the initial history and physical assessment? A) Increased temperature and lethargy B) Rash and restlessness C) Increased sleeping and listlessness D) Diarrhea and poor skin turgor Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Rash and restlessness. Question 4 As the nurse takes a history of a 3 year-old with neuroblastoma, what comments by the parents require follow-up and are consistent with the diagnosis? A) "The child has been listless and has lost weight." B) "Her urine is dark yellow and small in amounts." C) "Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen." D+) "We notice muscle weakness and some unsteadiness." Review Information: The correct answer is:C) "Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen.". One of the most common signs of neuroblastoma is increasing abdominal girth. The parents'' report that clothing is tight is significant, and should be followed by additional assessments. Question 5 A 16 year-old presents to the emergency department. The triage nurse finds that this teenager is legally married and signed the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate INITIAL action by the nurse? A) Refuse to see the client until a parent or legal guardian can be contacted B) Withhold treatment until telephone consent can be obtained from the spouse C) Refer the client to a community pediatric hospital emergency room D) Assess and treat in the same manner as any adult client Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Assess and treat in the same manner as any adult client. Minors may become known as an "emancipated minor" through marriage, pregnancy, high school graduation, independent living or service in the military. Therefore, this client, who is married, has the legal capacity of an adult. Question 6 A newly admitted elderly client is severely dehydrated. When planning care for this client, which one of the following is an appropriate task for an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)? A) Obtain a history of fluid loss B) Report output of less than 30 ml/hr C) Monitor response to IV fluids D) Check skin turgor every four hours Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Report output of less than 30 ml/hr. When directing a UAP, the nurse must communicate clearly about each delegated task with specific instructions on what must be reported. Because the RN is responsible for all care-related decisions,only implementation tasks should be assigned because they do not require independent judgment. Question 7 The nurse is assessing a 4 year-old for possible rheumatic fever. Which of the following would the nurse suspect is related to this diagnosis? A) Diagnosis of chickenpox six months ago B) Exposure to strep throat in daycare last month C) Treatment for ear infection two months ago D) Episode of fungal skin infection last week Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Exposure to strep throat in daycare last month. Evidence supports a strong relationship between infection with Group A streptococci and subsequent rheumatic fever (usually within 2-6 weeks). Therefore, the history of playmates recovering from strep throat would indicate that the child diagnosed with rheumatic fever most likely also had strep throat. Sometimes, such an infection has no clinical symptoms. Question 8 When the nurse becomes aware of feeling reluctant to interact with a manipulative client, the BEST action by the nurse is to A) Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor B) Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcing the manipulative behavior C) Confront the client regarding the negative effects of his/her behavior on others D) Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. The nurse who is experiencing stress in the therapeutic relationship can gain objectivity through supervision. The nurse must attempt to discover attitudes and feelings in the self that influence the nurse-client relationship. Question 9 A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action A) May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint B) Leaves the nurse vulnerable for charges of assault and battery C) Was appropriate in view of the client's history of violence D) Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit Review Information: The correct answer is:A) May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint. Seclusion should only be used when there is an immediate threat of violence or threatening behavior. Question 10 A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a Myocardial Infarction. Which of the following nursing diagnosis should have PRIORITY? A) Pain related to ischemia B) Risk for altered elimination: constipation C) Risk for complication: dysrhythmias D) Anxiety Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Pain related to ischemia. Pain is related to ischemia, and relief of pain will decrease myocardial oxygen demands, reduce blood pressure and heart rate and relieve anxiety. Pain also stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and increased preload, further increasing myocardial demands. Question 11 The nurse manager who is responsible for hiring professional nursing staff is required to comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act. The provisions of the law require the nurse manager to A) Maintain an environment free from hazards B) Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals C) Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals D) Consider only physical disabilities in making employment decisions Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals. The law is designed to permit persons with disabilities access to job opportunities. Employers must evaluate an applicant's ability to perform the job and not discriminate on the basis of a disability. Employers also must make "reasonable accommodations. Question 12 The mother of a school-aged child in a long leg cast asks the nurse how to relieve itching inside the cast. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest as a remedy? A) Scratching the outside of the cast vigorously, applying pressure over the area B) Blowing a hair dryer or heat lamp on the cast over the area that is itching C) Using a long, smooth piece of wood to gently scratch the affected area D) Applying an ice pack over the area of the cast that is affected Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Applying an ice pack over the area of the cast that is affected. Applying ice is a safe method of relieving the itching. Question 13 Which of the following BEST describes the application of time management strategies in the role of the nurse manager? A) Scheduling staff efficiently to cover client needs B) Assuming a fair share of the client care as a role model C) Setting daily goals to prioritize work D) Delegating tasks to reduce work load Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Setting daily goals to prioritize work. Time management strategies must include setting priorities and meeting goals. Question 14 The clinic nurse assesses a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Symptoms the nurse observes that suggest this problem include A) Lymphedema and nerve palsy B) Hearing loss and ataxia C) Headaches and vomiting D) Abdominal mass and weakness Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Abdominal mass and weakness. Clinical manifestations of neuroblastoma include an irregular abdominal mass that crosses the midline, weakness, pallor, anorexia, weight loss and irritability. Question 15 A fifteen year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which one of the following statements from the client indicates the need for additional teaching? A) "I will only have to wear this for six months." B) "I should inspect my skin daily." C) "The brace will be worn day and night." D) "I can take it off when I shower." Review Information: The correct answer is:A) "I will only have to wear this for six months.". The brace must be worn long-term, usually for 1-2 years. Question 16 The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that A) Quality of care will improve B) Staff turnover should decrease C) Flexible scheduling will occur D) Team morale will improve Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Team morale will improve. Nurses are more satisfied with autonomy and control. The nurse manager becomes the facilitator of scheduling rather than the decision-maker of the schedule. Question 17 A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse? A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing B) Loose, productive cough C) No relief from inhalant D) Fever and chills Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing. In asthma, the airways are narrowed - creating difficulty getting air in and a wheezing sound. Question 18 The nurse manager hears a physician loudly criticizing one of the staff nurses in the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the physician's complaints. The nurse manager's FIRST action should be A) Walk up to the physician and quietly ask that this unacceptable behavior stop B) Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference C) Notify the Nursing Director and Medical Staff Chief of a breech of professional conduct D) Request an immediate private meeting with the physician and staff nurse Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Request an immediate private meeting with the physician and staff nurse. Assertive communication respects the needs of all parties to express themselves, but not at the expense of others. The nurse manager needs first to protect clients and other staff from this display and come to the assistance of the nurse employee. Question 19 A client voluntarily admits herself to the hospital due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for two days and is now demanding to be released. The MOST appropriate action is for the nurse to A) Tell the client that she cannot be released because she is still suicidal B) Inform the client that she can be released only if she signs a no suicide contract C) Discuss with the client the decision to leave and prepare for her discharge D) Instruct her regarding her right to sign out upon receipt of the physician's discharge order Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Discuss with the client the decision to leave and prepare for her discharge. Clients voluntarily admitted to the hospital have a right to demand and obtain release. Discussing the decision allows opportunity for other interventions. Question 20 A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition? A) Dyspnea B) Heart murmur C) Macular rash D) Hemorrhage Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Heart murmur. Large, soft, rapidly developing vegetations attach to the heart valves. They have a tendency to break off, causing emboli and leaving ulcerations on the valve leaflets. These emboli produce symptoms of cardiac murmur, fever, anorexia, malaise and neurologic sequelae of emboli. Furthermore, the vegetations may travel to various organs such as spleen, kidney, coronary artery, brain and lungs and obstruct blood flow. Question 21 A nurseadmits a premature infant who has respiratory distress syndrome. In planning care, nursing actions are based on the fact that the MOST likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to A) Stabilize thermoregulation B) Maintain alveolar surface tension C) Begin normal pulmonary blood flow D) Regulate intracardiac pressure Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome is primarily a disease related to developmental delay in lung maturation. Although many factors lead to the development of the problem, the central factor relates to the lack of a normally functioning surfactant system due to immaturity in lung development. Question 22 An 18 year-old client is admitted to intensive care from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebrae. The nurse's PRIORITY assessment should be A) Response to stimuli B) Bladder control C) Respiratory function D) Muscle weakness Review Information: The correct answer is: C) Respiratory function. Spinal injury at the C-2 level results in quadriplegia. While the client will experience all of the problems identified, respiratory assessment is a priority. Question 23 The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is CRITICAL for the nurse to include in the plan of care? A) Hourly urine output B) White blood count C) Blood glucose every four hours D) Temperature every two hours Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Hourly urine output. Clients who have had an episode of decreased glomerular perfusion are at risk for pre-renal failure. This is caused by any abnormal decline in kidney perfusion that reduces glomerular perfusion. Pre-renal failure occurs when the effective arterial blood volume falls. Examples of this phenomena include a drop in circulating blood volume as in a cardiac arrest state or in low cardiac perfusion states such as congestive heart failure associated with a cardiomyopathy. Close observation of hourly urinary output is necessary for early detection of this condition. Question 24 The nurse admitting a 5 month-old who vomited nine times in the past six hours should observe for signs of A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Metabolic alkalosis. Vomiting causes loss of acid from the stomach. Prolonged vomiting can result in excess loss and lead to metabolic alkalosis. Question 25 A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. The FIRST action the school nurse should take is A) Call for emergency transport to the hospital B) Immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury C) Assess the child and the extent of the injury D) Apply cold compresses to the injured area Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assess the child and the extent of the injury. When applying the nursing process, assessment is the first step in providing care. The 5 "Ps" of vascular impairment can be used as a guide (pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis). Question 26 As the nurse interviews the parents of a child with asthma, it is a PRIORITY to ask about A) Household pets B) New furniture C) Lead based paint D) Plants such as cactus Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Household pets. Animal dander is a very common allergen affecting persons with asthma. Other triggers may include pollens, carpeting and household dust. Question 27 An 80 year-old client was admitted with a diagnosis of possible cerebral vascular accident. Blood pressure has ranged from 180/110 to 160/100. Over the past several hours, the nurse noted increasing lethargy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse report IMMEDIATELY to the physician? A) Slurred speech B) Incontinence C) Muscle weakness D) Rapid pulse Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Slurred speech. Changes in speech patterns and level of conscious can be indicators of continued intercranial bleeding. Treatment options may change based on further diagnostic tests. Question 28 A 3 year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for "scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night." Based on these complaints, the nurse would INITIALLY assess for A) Allergies B) Hyperactivity C) Regression D) Pinworms Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Pinworms. Signs of pinworm infection include intense perianal itching, poor sleep patterns, general irritability, restlessness, bed- wetting, distractibility and short attention span. Question 29 A 72 year-old client with osteomyelitis requires a six week course of intravenous antibiotics. In planning for home care, the MOST important action by the nurse is A) Investigating the client's insurance coverage for home IV antibiotic therapy B) Determining if there are adequate hand washing facilities in the home C) Assessing the client's ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver D) Selecting the appropriate venous access device Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assessing the client''s ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver. The cognitive ability of the client as well as the availability and reliability of a caregiver must be assessed to determine if home care is a feasible option. Question 30 The mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. The BEST response by the nurse is A) "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception." B) "Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy." C) "A well balanced diet promotes normal fetal development." D) "Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus." Review Information: The correct answer is:A) "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.". The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all childbearing women increase folic acid from dietary sources and/or supplements. There is evidence that increased amounts of folic acid prevents neural tube defects. Question 31 The nurse is caring for a newborn with a neural tube defect. The BEST covering for the lesion is A) Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment B) Moist sterile nonadherent dressing C) Dry sterile dressing D) Sterile occlusive pressure dressing Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Moist sterile nonadherent dressing. Before surgical closure the sac is prevented from drying by the application of a sterile, moist, nonadherent dressing over the defect. Dressings are changed frequently to keep them moist. Question 32 A nurse is providing a parenting class to individuals living in a community of older homes. In discussing formula preparation, which of the following is most important to prevent lead poisoning? A) Use ready-to-feed commercial infant formula B) Boil the tap water for 10 minutes prior to preparing the formula C) Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate D) Buy bottled water labeled "lead free" to mix the formula Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate. Use of lead-contaminated water to prepare formula is a major source of poisoning in infants. Drinking water may be contaminated by lead from old lead pipes or lead solder used insealing water pipes. Letting tap water run for several minutes will diminish the lead contamination. Question 33 A client is admitted to the rehabilitation unit following a CVA and mild dysphagia. The MOST appropriate intervention for this client is A) Position client in upright position while eating B) Place client on a clear liquid diet C) Tilt head back to facilitate swallowing reflex D) Offer finger foods such as crackers or pretzels Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Position client in upright position while eating. An upright position facilitates proper chewing and swallowing. Question 34 The nurse explains an autograft to a client scheduled for excision of a skin tumor. The nurse knows the client understands the procedure when the client says, "I will receive tissue from A) a tissue bank." B) a pig." C) my thigh." D) synthetic skin." Review Information: The correct answer is:C) my thigh.". Autografts are done with tissue transplanted from the client''s own skin. Question 35 The nurse is caring for a newborn with tracheoesophageal fistula. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a PRIORITY? A) Risk for dehydration B) Ineffective airway clearance C) Altered nutrition D) Risk for injury Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Ineffective airway clearance. The most common form of TEF is one in which the proximal esophageal segment terminates in a blind pouch and the distal segment is connected to the trachea or primary bronchus by a short fistula at or near the bifurcation. Thus, a priority is maintaining an open airway, preventing aspiration. Other nursing diagnoses are then addressed. Question 36 A client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. A full leg cast was applied in the emergency room. The MOST important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to A) Promote the client's comfort B) Reduce the drying time C) Decrease irritation to the skin D) Improve venous return Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Improve venous return. Elevating the leg both improves venous return and reduces swelling. Question 37 A nurse is working with family members of a newly diagnosed client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following interventions is MOST helpful? A) Teaching relaxation techniques B) Implementing a daily exercise routine C) Improving daily nutritional intake D) Suggesting communication strategies Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Suggesting communication strategies. Since Alzheimer''s disease is a progressive chronic illness that greatly challenges caregivers, the nurse can be of greatest assistance in helping family to identify language changes, and select verbal and nonverbal communication strategies to minimize aberrant behavior. Question 38 The nurse is teaching a client with non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus about the prescribed diet. The nurse should teach the client to A) Maintain previous calorie intake B) Keep a candy bar available at all times C) Reduce carbohydrates intake to 25% of total calories D) Keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks. Currently, calorie-controlled diets with strict mealplans are rarely suggested for clients who have diabetes. Try to incorporate schedule or food changes into clients'' existing dietary patterns. Help clients learn to read labels and identify specific canned foods, frozen entrees, or other foods which are acceptable and those which should be avoided. Question 39 The mother of a two month-old baby calls the nurse at a well-baby clinic two days after the first DTaP immunization. She reports that the baby feels very warm, has cried inconsolably for as long as three hours, and has had several shaking spells. The response of the nurse should be to A) instruct the mother to call 911 for an ambulance to transport the infant B) suggest that these are expected reactions and to begin every 4 hour antipyretics C) tell the mother to take the infant immediately to the nearest emergency room D) give instructions to bring the infant to the clinic now Review Information: The correct answer is:A)instruct the mother to call 911 for an ambulance to transport the infant The exhibited findings of the infant indicate a severe reaction to the immunizations. Immediate attention is needed & an ambulance with trained staff needs to transport because of the risk of grand mal seizures from potential encephalopathy which is a critical reaction. The mother would need to be instructed after this acute reaction to inform the provider of this reaction to the first dose of DTaP. Based on the need and risk involved to the infant, the health care provider may decide that further DTaP immunizations are contraindicated for life. The clinic nurse would need to document in the notes for this infant: the instructions given, findings reported by the mother and specific follow-up needs for the next clinic visit in relation to teaching and evaluation of the outcome of this event. Question 40 The nurse is teaching a class on HIV prevention. Which of the following should be emphasized as increasing risk? A) Donating blood B) Using public bathrooms C) Unprotected sex D) Touching a person with AIDS Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Unprotected sex. Because HIV is spread through exposure to bodily fluids, unprotected intercourse and shared drug paraphernalia remain the highest risk for infection. Question 41 A 6 year-old child is seen for the first time in the clinic. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the child has short palpebral fissures, thinned upper lip, and hypoplastic philtrum of the upper lip. The mother states that the child seems to have problems in learning to count and recognizing basic colors. Based on this data, the nurse suspects that the child is MOST likely showing the effects of A) Congenital abnormalities B) Chronic toxoplasmosis C) Fetal alcohol syndrome D) Lead poisoning Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Fetal alcohol syndrome. Major features of fetal alcohol syndrome consist of facial and associated physical features, such as short palpebral fissure, hypoplastic philtrum, thinned upper lip, short, upturned nose. Behavioral problems, cognitive impairment and psychosocial deficits are also associated with this syndrome. Question 42 The nurse is performing the admission assessment of a client with an acute episode of asthma. Which of the following assessments would the nurse anticipate finding? A) Prolonged inspiration B) Expiratory wheezes C) Expectorating large amounts of purulent mucous D) Lethargy Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Expiratory wheezes. Asthma is characterized by expiratory wheezes caused by obstruction of the airways. Wheezes are a high pitched musical sounds produced by air moving through narrowed airways. Clients often associate wheezes with the feeling of tightness in the chest. Question 43 The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which of the following dinner menus would be BEST? A) Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk B) Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk C) Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk D) Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk. Iron rich foods include red meat, fish, egg yolks, green leafy vegetables, legumes, whole grains, dried fruits such as raisins. This dinner is the best choice, high in iron and is appropriate for a toddler. Question 44 A ten year-old client is recovering from a splenectomy following a traumatic injury. The clients laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28 percent. The BEST approach for the nurse to use is to A) Limit milk and milk products B) Encourage bed activities and games C) Plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods D) Promote a diet rich in iron Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods. The initial priority for this client is rest due to the inability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. Question 45 The nurse planning care for a 12 year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis of the elbow should include which one of the following as a PRIORITY? A) Limit fluids B) Client controlled analgesia C) Cold compresses to elbow D) Passive range of motion exercise Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Client controlled analgesia. Management of a crisis is directed towards supportive and symptomatic treatment. The priority of care is pain relief. In a 12 year-old child, client controlled analgesia promotes maximum comfort. Question 46 As the nurse provides discharge teaching to the parents of a 15 month-old child with Kawasaki Disease who has received immunoglobulin therapy, which one of the following instructions would be MOST appropriate? A) High doses of aspirin will be continued for some time B) Complete recovery is expected within several days C) Active range of motion exercises should be done frequently D) The measles, mumps and rubella vaccine should be delayed Review Information: The correct answer is:D) The measles, mumps and rubella vaccine should be delayed. Discharge instructions for a child with Kawasaki Disease should include immunoglobulin therapy may interfere with the body''s ability to form appropriate amounts of antibodies and live immunizations should be delayed. Question 47 The nurse is giving instructions to the parents of a child with Cystic Fibrosis. The nurse would emphasize that pancreatic enzymes should be taken A) Once each day B) Three times daily after meals C) With each meal or snack D) Each time carbohydrates are eaten Review Information: The correct answer is:C) With each meal or snack. Pancreatic enzymes should be taken with each meal and every snack to allow for digestion of all foods that are eaten. Question 48 The nurse is assessing an eight month-old infant with a malfunctioning ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which one of the following manifestations would the infant be MOST likely to exhibit? A) Lethargy B) Irritability C) Negative Moro D) Depressed fontanel Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Irritability. Signs of IICP (increased intracranial pressure) in infants include bulging fontanel, instability, high-pitched cry, and cries when held. Vital sign changes include pulse that is variable, i.e., rapid, slow and bounding, or feeble. Respirations are more often slow, deep, and irregular. Question 49 The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a toddler. Which of the following should be the FIRST action? A) Perform traumatic procedures B) Use minimal physical contact C) Proceed from head to toe D) Explain the exam in detail Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Use minimal physical contact. The nurse should approach the toddler slowly and use minimal physical contact initially so as to gain the toddler''s cooperation. Be flexible in the sequence of the exam, and give only brief simple explanations just prior to the action. Question 50 A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of the following symptoms noted on the initial nursing assessment is expected? A) Recent weight gain B) Physical growth delay C) Protruding eyeballs D) Sudden onset of irritability Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Protruding eyeballs. Exophthalmos or protruding eyeballs is a distinctive characteristic of Graves'' Disease. Question 51 When assessing a client admitted to the hospital for diabetic acidosis, which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect? A) A blood pH level above 7.5 B) Arterial blood PCO2 above 40 C) Blood pH level below 7.3 D) Arterial blood PCO2 below 10 Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Blood pH level below 7.3. In the absence of insulin, which facilitates the transport of glucose into the cell, the body breaks down fats and proteins to supply energy ketones, a by-product of fat metabolism. These accumulate causing metabolic acidosis (pH 7.3). Question 52 The nurse is explaining the proper use of syrup of ipecac to a group of parents. For which of the following accidental poisonings is the treatment appropriate? A) Oven cleaner B) Drain cleaner C) Kerosene D) Chewable vitamins Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Chewable vitamins. Of the above choices, poisoning with vitamins is the only case in which it is safe to induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. Question 53 A two year-old child is brought to the pediatrician's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for two days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which one of the following statements? A) Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours B) Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids C) Give bananas, apples, rice and toast as tolerated D) Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Current recommendations for mild to moderate diarrhea are to maintain a normal diet with rehydration fluids. Question 54 The nurse is teaching an elderly client how to use MDI's (multi-dose inhalers). The nurse is concerned that the client is unable to coordinate the release of the medication with the inhalation phase. The nurse's BEST recommendation for the client is A) Nebulized treatments for home care B) Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister C) Asking a family member to assist the client with the MDI D) Request a visiting nurse to follow the client at home Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister. The majority of pulmonary medications for COPD are delivered by inhalation.This is often preferred over oral administration because a lower drug dose is needed and systemic side effects are reduced. In addition, the onset of action of bronchodilator medication given via inhalation is faster. Question 55 Which of the following manifestations observed by the school nurse confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students? A) Scratching the head more than usual B) Flakes evident on a student's shoulders C) Oval pattern occipital hair loss D) Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair. Diagnosis of pediculosis capitis is made by observation of the white eggs (nits) firmly attached to the hair shafts. Treatment includes shampoo application, such as lindane for children over 2 years of age, and meticulous combing and removal of all nits. Question 56 When parents call the emergency room to report that a toddler has swallowed drain cleaner, the nurse instructs them to call for emergency transport to the hospital. While waiting for an ambulance, the BEST action the nurse would suggest to the parents is A) Administer syrup of ipecac B) Offer small amounts of water C) Have the child drink milk D) Give ginger ale or cola Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Offer small amounts of water. Small amounts of water will dilute the corrosive substance prior to gastric lavage. Question 57 A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicate a potential hazard for this test? A) Reflex incontinence B) Allergic to shellfish C) Claustrophobia D) Hypertension Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Allergic to shellfish. It is important to know if the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish. If the client does, they may have an allergic reaction to the IVP contrast dye injected during the procedure. Question 58 A high school nurse is advising a class of unwed pregnant students that the MOST important action they can perform to deliver a healthy child is A) Maintaining good nutrition B) Staying in school C) Keeping in contact with the child's father D) Getting adequate sleep Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Maintaining good nutrition. Nurses can serve a pivotal role in providing nutritional education and case management interventions. Weight gain during pregnancy is one of the strongest predictors of infant birth weight. Specifically, teens need to increase their intake of protein, vitamins, and minerals including iron. Pregnant teens who gain between 26 and 35 pounds have the lowest incidence of low-birth- weight babies. Question 59 The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which of the following should be included in the teaching materials? A) Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal B) Finely ground meat should be started early to provide iron C) Egg white is added early to increase protein intake D) Solid foods should be mixed with formula in a bottle Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal. Solid foods should be added one at a time between 4-6 months. If the infant is able to tolerate the food, another may be added in a week. Iron fortified cereal is the recommended first food. Question 60 The nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell disease who is scheduled to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse when administering the infusion? A) Storing the packed red cells in the medicine refrigerator while starting IV B) Slow the rate of infusion if the client develops fever or chills C) Limit the infusion time of each of the unit to a maximum of four hours D) Assess vital signs every 15 minutes throughout the entire infusion Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Limit the infusion time of each of the unit to a maximum of four hours. Infuse the specified amount of blood within 4 hours. If the infusion will exceed this time, the blood should be divided into appropriately sized quantities. Question 61 A client with a documented pulmonary embolism has the following arterial blood gases: PO2 - 70 mm hg, PCO2 - 32 mm hg, pH - 7.45, SaO2 - 87%, HCO3 - 22. Based on thisdata, what is the FIRST nursing action? A) Review other lab data B) Notify the physician C) Administer oxygen D) Calm the client Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Administer oxygen. The client has a low PCO2 due to increased respiratory rate from the hypoxemia and signs of respiratory alkalosis. Immediate intervention is indicated. Question 62 A client diagnosed with hepatitis C discusses his health history with the admitting nurse. The nurse should recognize which of the following as the MOST important data? A) Recent travel to Central America B) Ingestion of raw shellfish last week C) Multiple sex partners D) Blood transfusion 15 years ago Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Blood transfusion 15 years ago. The client who was transfused prior to blood screening for hepatitis C may show symptoms many years later. Question 63 A client is recovering from a thyroidectomy. While monitoring the client's initial post operative condition, which of the following should the nurse report immediately? A) Tetany and paresthesia B) Mild stridor and hoarseness C) Irritability and insomnia D) Headache and nausea Review Information: The correct answer is: A) Tetany and paresthesia. Because the parathyroid gland may be damaged in this surgery, secondary hypocalcemia may occur. Symptoms of hypoparathyroidism include tetany, paresthesia, muscle cramps and seizures. Question 64 A client is admitted with a right upper lobe infiltrate, and also to rule out tuberculosis. The isolation precautions the nurse would institute include A) Positive pressure ventilation B) Gown and gloves C) Particulate respirator mask D) Barrier precautions Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Particulate respirator mask. Tight fitting, high-efficiency masks are required when caring for clients who have suspected communicable disease of the airborne variety. Question 65 A client had 20 mg of Lasix (furosemide) PO at 10 AM. Which would be essential for the nurse to include at the change of shift report? A) The client lost 2 pounds B) The client's potassium level is 4 mEq/liter. C) The client's urine output was 1500 cc in five hours D) The client is to receive another dose of Lasix at 10 PM Review Information: The correct answer is:C) The client's urine output was 1500 cc in five hours. Although all of these may be correct information to include in report, the essential piece would be the urine output. Question 66 The nurse is caring for a client with a colostomy. During a teaching session, the nurse recommends that the pouch be emptied A) When it is one third to one half full B) Prior to meals C) After each fecal elimination D) At the same time each day Review Information: The correct answer is:A) When it is one third to one half full. If the pouch becomes more than half full it may separate from the flange. Question 67 A couple asks the nurse about risks of several birth control methods. The MOST appropriate response by the nurse would be A) Norplant is safe and may be removed easily B) Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers C) Depo-Provera is convenient with few side effects D) The IUD gives protection from pregnancy and infection Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers. The use of oral contraceptives in a pregnant woman who smokes increases her risk of cardiovascular problems. Question 68 Lactulose (Chronulac) has been prescribed for a client with advanced liver disease. Which of the following assessments would the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment? A) An increase in appetite B) A decrease in fluid retention C) A decrease in lethargy D) A reduction in jaundice Review Information: The correct answer is:C) A decrease in lethargy. Lactulose produces and acid environment in the bowel and trapsammonia in the gut; the laxative effect then aids in removing the ammonia from the body. This decreases the effects of hepatic encephalopathy, including lethargy and confusion. Question 69 The mother of a 3 month-old infant tells the nurse that she wants to change from formula towhole milk and add cereal and meats to the diet. What should be emphasized as the nurse teaches about infant nutrition? A) Solid foods should be introduced at 3-4 months B) Whole milk is difficult for a young infant to digest C) Fluoridated tap water should be used to dilute milk D) Supplemental apple juice can be used between feedings Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Whole milk is difficult for a young infant to digest. Cow''s milk is not given to infants younger than 1 year because the tough, hard curd is difficult to digest. Also it contains little iron and creates a high renal solute load. Question 70 The nurse is assessing a 55 year-old female client who is scheduled for abdominal surgery. Which of the following information would indicate that the client is at risk for thrombusformation in the post-operative period? A) Estrogen replacement therapy B) 10% less than ideal body weight C) Hypersensitivity to heparin D) History of hepatitis Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen increases the hypercoagualability of the blood and increased the risk for development of thrombophlebitis. Question 71 The nurse is planning discharge for a 90 year-old client with musculo-skeletal weakness. Which of the following interventions would be MOST effective in preventing falls? A) Place nightlights in bedroom B) Wear eyeglasses at all times C) Install grab bars in the bathroom D) Teach muscle strengthening exercises Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Place nightlights in bedroom. Because more falls occur in the bedroom than any other location, begin there. However, work in partnership with the client and family so they are willing to move furniture, lamp cords, and storage areas; add lighting; remove throw rugs; and decrease other environmental hazards. Question 72 While obtaining the history of a two week-old infant during the well-baby exam, the nurse finds that the neonatal screening for phenylketonuria (PKU) was done when the infant was less than 24 hours-old. It is a PRIORITY for the nurse to A) Schedule the infant for a repeat test in two weeks B) Obtain a repeat blood test at this point C) Contact the hospital of birth for the results D) Document that the test results are pending Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Obtain a repeat blood test at this point. Testing for PKU is most reliable when protein has been ingested. A repeat blood specimen must be obtained by the third week of life if the initial specimen was taken from an infant less than 24 hours-old. Question 73 Two hours after the normal spontaneous vaginal delivery of a woman who is gravida 4 para 4, the nurse notes that the fundus is boggy and displaced slightly above and to the left of the umbilicus. The appropriate INITIAL nursing action is to A) Assess lochia for color and amount B) Monitor pulse and blood pressure C) Call the physician immediately D) Ask the woman to empty her bladder Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Ask the woman to empty her bladder. A full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent contraction. After the woman empties the bladder, the fundus should be assessed again. Question 74 An 8 year-old client is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The child's parent reports several allergies. Which of the following should all health care personnel be aware of? A) Shellfish B) Molds C) Balloons D) Perfumed soap Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Balloons. Allergy to balloons indicates a latex allergy. All personnel in contact with the child will need to be aware of this condition and use non-latex gloves. Question 75 The nurse is caring for a client who is post-op following a thoracotomy. The client has two chest tubes in place,connected to one chest drain. The nursing assessment reveals bubbling in the water seal chamber when the client coughs. What is the MOST appropriate nursing action? A) Clamp the chest tube B) Call the surgeon immediately C) Continue to monitor the client to see if the bubbling increases D) Instruct the client to try to avoid coughing Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Continue to monitor the client to see if the bubbling increases. Bubbling associated with coughing after lung surgery is to be expected as small amounts of air escape the pleural space when pressures inside the chest increase with coughing. Monitoring is the only nursing action required. Question 76 The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a 24 year-old woman receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) for a Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 infection. The nurse should instruct the client to A) Complete the entire course of the medication for an effective cure B) Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence C) Stop treatment if she thinks she may be pregnant to prevent birth defects D) Continue to take prophylactic doses for at least five years after the diagnosis Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence. When the client is aware of early symptoms, such as pain, itching or tingling, treatment is very effective. Question 77 An eight year-old child is hospitalized during the edema phase of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse is assisting in choosing the lunch menu. Which one of the following is the BEST choice? A) Bologna sandwich, pudding, milk B) Frankfurter, baked potato, milk C) Chicken strips, corn on the cob, milk D) Grilled cheese sandwich, apple, milk Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Chicken strips, corn on the cob, milk. This menu is lowest in sodium. Ideally, low fat milk would be available. Question 78 The nurse is teaching parents about accidental poisoning in children. Which of the following should be emphasized? A) Start treatment before calling the Poison Control Center B) Empty the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning C) Do not move the child if a toxic substance was inhaled D) Induce vomiting if the poison is a hydrocarbon Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Empty the child''s mouth in any case of possible poisoning. Emptying the mouth of poison interferes with further ingestion and should be done first to limit contact with the substance. Question 79 Which of the following symptoms contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose? A) Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity B) Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision C) Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression D) Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression. Rash and blood dyscrasias are side effects of anti-psychotic drugs. A history of severe depression is a contraindication to the use of neuroleptics. Question 80 The nurse is planning care for a 14 year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive PRIORITY in the plan? A) Antibiotic therapy for 10 days B) Teach client isometric exercises for legs C) Assess movement and sensation of extremities D) Assist to stand up at bedside within the first 24 hours Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assess movement and sensation of extremities.

Understanding Pathophysiology 7th Edition Huether Test Bank , To clarify this is a test bank not a textbook .Test Bank Directly From The Publisher, 100% Verified Answers.COVERS ALL CHAPTERS. Download Immediately After the Order. instant delivery .

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.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 2. Social forces refer to those aspects of a culture that guide and influence relationships among people. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 38 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 3. Political forces are aspects of a culture that guide and influence relationships among people. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 38 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 4. Economic forces pertain to the availability, production, and distribution of resources in a society. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: LEARNING OBJECTIVES: NATIONAL STANDARDS: STATE STANDARDS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: 39 MGMT.DAFT.12. United States - BUSPROG: Analytic United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence Bloom's: Knowledge F 5. The early study of management as we know it today began with what is now called the technology-driven workplace. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 40 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 6. The classical perspective on management emerged during the 1800s. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 40 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 7. The humanistic perspective contains three subfields: scientific management, bureaucratic organizations, and administrative principles. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 40 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 8. Frederick W. Taylor developed Systems Thinking and emphasized the fourteen principles of management that should guide managerial behavior. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 40 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 9. Scientific management evolved with the use of precise procedures in place of tradition and rules of thumb. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 41 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 10. A criticism of human relations management is that it ignores the social context and workers’ needs. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 41 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 11. One of the criticisms of scientific management is it did not acknowledge variance among individuals. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 41 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 12. Standardization of work and wage incentives are characteristics of behavioral science. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 41 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 13. Scientific management developed a standard method for performing each job. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 41 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 14. With clear definitions of authority and responsibility, division of labor is one of the six characteristics of the ideal bureaucracy. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 42 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 15. Administrative acts and decisions recorded in writing is one of the six characteristics of the ideal bureaucracy. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 43 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 16. Fayol's unity of command principle emphasizes that each subordinate receives orders from one, and only one superior. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 44 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 17. Unity of direction principle proposes that similar activities in an organization should be grouped together under one manager. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 44 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 18. The scalar chain is a hypothetical chain that provides horizontal links between unionized workers in different departments in an organization. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 44 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 19. Scientific management focuses on employee competence, whereas administrative principles focus on work flow through the organization. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 44 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 20. Follett and Barnard were early advocates of a more humanistic perspective on management that emphasized the importance of understanding human behavior, needs, and attitudes in the workplace as well as social interactions and group processes. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 45 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 21. Unfortunately, Mary Parker Follett's approach to leadership stressed the importance of engineering techniques rather than people. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 45 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 22. A social group within an organization is part of the informal organization. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 46 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 23. The Hawthorne studies resulted in the movement towards scientific management. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 46 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 24. The human relations movement is also referred to as the dairy farm view of management, meaning that contented cows give more milk, and satisfied workers will give more work. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 47 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 25. The Hawthorne studies led to the early conclusion that positive human relations can lead to significantly higher performance. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 47 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 26. Theory Y proposes that organizations can take advantage of the imagination and intellect of all of their employees. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 48 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 27. According to Douglas McGregor, Theory X and Theory Y provide two opposing views of workers, where Theory X recognizes that workers enjoy achievement and responsibility, while Theory Y recognizes that workers will avoid work whenever possible. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 49 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 28. An assumption of Theory Y is that the average human being has an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it if possible. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 49 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 29. The Systems Thinking approach develops theories about human behavior based on scientific methods and study. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 49 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 30. Organization development is a specific set of management techniques based in the behavioral science approach. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 50 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 31. The scientific management perspective refers to the management thinking and practice that emphasizes satisfaction of employees' basic needs as the key to increased worker productivity. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 50 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence Bloom's: Knowledge F 32. The management science approach uses qualitative data in management decision making. a.True b.False ANSWER: False POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 50 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 33. The field of management that specializes in the physical production of goods or services refers to operations management. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 1 REFERENCES: 51 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 34. Information technology is the most recent subfield of the quantitative perspective. a.True b.False ANSWER: True POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: 2 REFERENCES: 51 LEARNING OBJECTIVES: MGMT.DAFT.12. NATIONAL STANDARDS: United States - BUSPROG: Analytic STATE STANDARDS:United States - LA - DISC: Environmental Influence KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Knowledge OTHER: F 35. The term “quants” refers to financial managers and others who base their decisions on complex quantitative analysis, under assumption that using advanced mathematics and technology can accurately predict how the market works.

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ACLS Test Bank - Free download as Word Doc (.doc / .docx), PDF File (.pdf), Text File (.txt) or read online for free. This document provides guidance on various protocols and procedures for cardiac arrest management and other emergency situations. It addresses actions for no pulse/no breathing, obtaining an ECG for chest pain, epinephrine administration route, actions when an AED does not analyze a rhythm, priority after 2 minutes of CPR, effective chest compression techniques, signs of effective CPR, terminating resuscitation, defibrillation techniques, appropriate ventilation rates, medications for bradycardia and tachycardia, stroke assessment and treatment, and post-cardiac arrest care including therapeutic hypothermia. The document emphasizes high-quality CPR, rapid defibrillation, and treatment of reversible causes.